A 37-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of rectal problems. He has had a constant urge to defecate for the past 2-3 days. When he does have a bowel movement, it is a small volume that contains purulent material sometimes streaked with blood. He has no fever but feels tired with generalized malaise. He recently had unprotected anal-receptive sex with a new male partner. He is in otherwise general good health and takes no medications. He has no history of similar illness.
His vital signs are within normal limits. Cardiopulmonary and abdominal examinations are also within normal limits. There are no lesions visible in the perianal area. There is no inguinal lymphadenopathy.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
A) Campylobacter jejuni
B) Crohn's disease
C) Herpes simplex virus
D) Human papilloma virus
E) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Correct Answer:
Verified
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