A 26-year-old man comes to the office with a 4-week history of malaise, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. Two days ago, he noticed streaks of blood in his stool. The patient has not traveled recently and has not eaten anything out of the ordinary. He has no prior medical conditions. The patient occasionally drinks alcohol but does not use tobacco or illicit drugs. His father was diagnosed with colon cancer at age 55 and died of metastatic disease 5 years later.
Temperature is 38 C (100.4 F) . Abdominal examination reveals tenderness in the periumbilical area and left lower quadrant with no guarding or rebound tenderness. Bowel sounds are increased. Rectal examination shows no hemorrhoids or fissures, but blood-streaked stool is present in the rectal vault.
Stool cultures and testing for infections, including Clostridioides difficile, are negative. Colonoscopy shows edematous, friable mucosa; multiple ulcerations; and exudates involving the entire colon. Biopsies reveal mononuclear cell infiltrates, cryptitis, and crypt abscesses.
Medical therapy is started. A follow-up colonoscopy 8 weeks later shows minimal mucosal edema but is otherwise unremarkable.
Which of the following is the best recommendation regarding colorectal cancer screening in this patient?
A) Annual colonoscopy beginning now
B) Annual fecal immunochemical test
C) Colonoscopy at age 40 and then every 5 years
D) Colonoscopy at age 45 and then every 10 years
E) Colonoscopy in 8 years and then every 1-3 years
Correct Answer:
Verified
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