A 39-year-old premenopausal woman comes to the physician after a total mastectomy for a 3.5-cm invasive ductal carcinoma. The cancer is negative for estrogen and progestin receptors and for HER2 mutation. The margins were free of cancer and she had negative lymph nodes. The patient had adjuvant chemotherapy and opted to undergo contralateral mastectomy after she was found to have the BRCA1 mutation. She has 2 children and has completed her family. Her mother was diagnosed with ovarian cancer at age 51, and her paternal grandfather had prostate cancer in his 50s.
Her vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows well-healed bilateral mastectomy scars.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Annual surveillance with tumor marker CA125
B) Elective salpingo-oophorectomy
C) No additional recommendations
D) Semi-annual surveillance with transvaginal ultrasound
E) Tamoxifen
Correct Answer:
Verified
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