A 68-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease comes to the physician due to fever and malaise. He developed abrupt-onset fever, headache, nonproductive cough, severe body aches, and generalized weakness about 24 hours ago. He has a 43-year history of smoking but quit 2 years ago. His medications include tiotropium daily and albuterol as needed. The patient has no other medical problems. He visited his grandchildren a week ago during Christmas and reports that his 6-year-old grandson was sick with similar symptoms.
His temperature is 38.9 C (102 F) , blood pressure is 124/84 mm Hg, pulse is 96/min, and respirations are 18/min. Pulmonary auscultation shows decreased breath sounds bilaterally but no focal crackles.
Chest x-ray shows flat hemidiaphragms bilaterally but no focal infiltrate. A rapid influenza antigen test is negative. Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment at this time?
A) Amantadine
B) Oseltamivir
C) Ribavirin
D) Symptomatic therapy (eg, acetaminophen) only
E) Zanamivir
Correct Answer:
Verified
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