A 28-year-old woman comes to the office for consultation. The patient has a history of recurrent genital herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 2 infections but has no symptoms at present. She has 3 or 4 symptomatic episodes a year. The patient has no other sexually transmitted infections or medical problems and takes no medications. She has a new male sexual partner who is HSV-seronegative.
Which of the following is the most effective strategy for decreasing this patient's risk of transmitting HSV to her partner?
A) Abstinence for 2 weeks after an outbreak
B) Chronic suppressive antiviral therapy
C) Circumcision of the male partner
D) Condom use during prodromes and outbreaks
E) Prompt antiviral treatment of the outbreaks
Correct Answer:
Verified
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