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A 28-Year-Old Woman Comes to the Office for Consultation

Question 462

Multiple Choice

A 28-year-old woman comes to the office for consultation.  The patient has a history of recurrent genital herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 2 infections but has no symptoms at present.  She has 3 or 4 symptomatic episodes a year.  The patient has no other sexually transmitted infections or medical problems and takes no medications.  She has a new male sexual partner who is HSV-seronegative.
Which of the following is the most effective strategy for decreasing this patient's risk of transmitting HSV to her partner?


A) Abstinence for 2 weeks after an outbreak
B) Chronic suppressive antiviral therapy
C) Circumcision of the male partner
D) Condom use during prodromes and outbreaks
E) Prompt antiviral treatment of the outbreaks

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