A 34-year-old man presents to the office complaining of discomfort and itching in his perianal area that is more pronounced at night and has disturbed his sleep over the last two weeks. He denies any abdominal pain, diarrhea, pain on defection, or anal discharge. His other medical problems include severe gastroesophageal reflux disease and anxiety disorder. He was diagnosed with genital herpes two years ago and had taken daily valacyclovir for one year, but stopped 6 months ago. He has not had any recurrences over the last 18 months. He currently takes esomeprazole and alprazolam as needed. He lives with his wife and two children (ages 3 and 5) and claims to be monogamous.
His vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows excoriations in the perianal region. The remainder of his examination is unremarkable.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's complaints?
A) Anxiety disorder
B) Corynebacterium minutissimum
C) Enterobius vermicularis
D) Herpes simplex virus
E) Human papilloma virus
Correct Answer:
Verified
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