A 35-year-old man comes to the office due to 4 weeks of generalized malaise, left-sided headache, and weakness of the right hand. The patient has a history of intravenous drug use, which led to hepatitis C and HIV infections. He has refused antiretroviral therapy, and his last known CD4 count was 298/mm3 3 months ago. He has never had an HIV-related opportunistic infection or been hospitalized.
Temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) , blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 106/min. Examination shows no oral thrush or enlarged lymph nodes. Erythematous macules are present on both palms. A 3/6 holosystolic murmur is heard at the cardiac apex. The lungs are clear to auscultation. The abdomen is nontender. There are no meningeal signs. Motor strength is 4/5 in the right upper extremity and 5/5 in the remaining extremities. Reflexes are 3+ in the right upper extremity with a noted extensor plantar response on the right.
Laboratory results are as follows:
CT scan of the head with and without contrast reveals a 2.4-cm, ring-enhancing, round mass with vasogenic edema and mild mass effect at the grey-white matter junction in the left frontal lobe.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Brain abscess
B) HIV-associated encephalopathy
C) Primary central nervous system lymphoma
D) Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
E) Toxoplasmosis encephalitis
Correct Answer:
Verified
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