A 67-year-old woman with stable angina pectoris comes to the office for follow-up. She has occasional retrosternal chest pain on heavy exertion, which improves with sublingual nitroglycerin. The patient has had no shortness of breath, palpitations, headache, or focal neurological symptoms. Medical history is significant for hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, peripheral vascular disease, and a 3.5-cm abdominal aortic aneurysm.
Physical examination shows a carotid bruit. Duplex ultrasonography reveals complete occlusion of the right internal carotid artery and mild stenosis of the left internal carotid artery.
Which of the following is the best management for this patient's carotid disease?
A) Carotid artery bypass surgery
B) Carotid artery stenting
C) Carotid endarterectomy
D) Medical therapy only
Correct Answer:
Verified
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