A 75-year-old woman comes to the office for follow-up of osteoporosis. She has been on weekly oral risedronate for the last 2 years and has an adequate daily intake of calcium and vitamin D via diet and oral supplements. However, in the past year the patient has experienced 2 vertebral compression fractures and lost 5.1 cm (2 in) in height. She was evaluated in a fall reduction program, and home safety improvements were implemented. A home health aide assists the patient with her medications and notes that adherence has been excellent. Medical history is notable for a mild stroke 2 years ago with minimal residual deficits.
Vital signs are normal. BMI is 20 kg/m2. On examination, the patient appears frail and has a modest thoracic kyphosis. Physical examination is otherwise normal.
Laboratory results show normal blood counts, liver function tests, serum creatinine, alkaline phosphatase, TSH, serum parathyroid hormone, anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody assay, 25-hydroxyvitamin D, and serum protein electrophoresis. 24-hour urine calcium excretion is 290 mg. DXA reveals a T-score of −2.8 in the hip and −3.6 in the spine, which represents a significant (>5%) decrease compared with her last test 2 years ago.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient's osteoporosis?
A) Add raloxifene
B) Add teriparatide
C) Advise wearing a hip protector
D) Measure urine N-telopeptide
E) Stop risedronate and start teriparatide
Correct Answer:
Verified
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