A 32-year-old woman comes to the office for evaluation of absent menses. The patient had a vaginal delivery 4 months ago, and she has not had a menstrual period since delivery. Her postpartum course was complicated by a postpartum hemorrhage, requiring blood transfusion and emergency suction and sharp curettage. At her postpartum visit 2 months ago, the patient was started on combination oral contraceptives and has had no vaginal bleeding or spotting during her week of placebo pills. Prior to this pregnancy, she had regular, monthly menstrual cycles with 3-4 days of moderate bleeding. The patient has had increased fatigue since returning to work and is bottle-feeding. She has no headaches, galactorrhea, or hot flushes. Vital signs are normal. BMI is 31 kg/m2. Pelvic examination shows clear vaginal discharge throughout the vault and a well-rugated vagina. The uterus is small and anteverted, and there are bilateral small, nontender ovaries. Urine pregnancy test is negative. FSH and TSH levels are normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A) Asherman syndrome
B) Gestational trophoblastic disease
C) Polycystic ovary syndrome
D) Postpartum thyroiditis
E) Primary ovarian insufficiency
F) Sheehan syndrome
Correct Answer:
Verified
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