A 38-year-old woman comes to the office due to breast pain. For the past 2 months, the patient has had intermittent bilateral breast pain that usually begins the week prior to menses and subsides on the first day of her menstrual cycle. The pain is primarily in the bilateral upper outer quadrants and does not radiate to the back or neck. Six months ago, the patient started a new job that requires long hours of sedentary work; she has gained 4.5 kg (10 lb) . She has no chronic medical conditions and takes no daily medications. The patient has regular monthly menses, and her last menstrual period was a week ago. BMI is 26 kg/m2. Vital signs are normal. Breast examination shows bilateral, symmetric, large breasts with slight tenderness over the upper outer quadrants. There are no skin changes, nipple discharge, masses, or axillary lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Breast-reduction surgery
B) Breast ultrasound and mammography
C) Combined estrogen/progestin oral contraceptives
D) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
E) Supportive bra and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
Correct Answer:
Verified
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