A 60-year-old woman comes to the office for a breast cancer follow-up visit. The patient recently underwent a right mastectomy for a node-negative, estrogen- and progesterone-receptor-positive tumor. She was started on an aromatase inhibitor for adjuvant therapy; however, the medication was discontinued due to severe fatigue and poor sleep. As a result, she is scheduled to begin a 5-year course of adjuvant therapy with tamoxifen. The patient has no other chronic medical conditions and her only medication is a daily multivitamin. Her last menstrual period was 5 years ago. The patient's father had a myocardial infarction at age 65; family history is otherwise noncontributory. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Vital signs are stable. BMI is 21 kg/m2. The patient has many concerns about tamoxifen therapy and asks about potential side effects. Which of the following is the patient at greatest risk for developing due to tamoxifen therapy?
A) Decreased bone density
B) Dysplasia of the cervical transformation zone
C) Ectopic endometrial tissue in the myometrium
D) Hyperplasia of the endometrium
E) Intimal thickening of the coronary arteries
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q71: A 53-year-old woman comes to the emergency
Q72: A 27-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1,
Q73: A 38-year-old woman comes to the office
Q74: A 37-year-old woman comes to the office
Q75: A 39-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 2,
Q77: A 32-year-old woman comes to the office
Q78: A 16-year-old girl comes to the office
Q79: Six weeks after a spontaneous, uncomplicated term
Q80: A 41-year-old woman comes to the office
Q81: A 48-year-old woman comes to the clinic
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents