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A 27-Year-Old Woman, Gravida 2 Para 1, at 28 Weeks

Question 72

Multiple Choice

A 27-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 28 weeks gestation comes to the office for follow-up of an abnormal Pap test.  She feels fetal movement, has no vaginal bleeding or contractions, and has had an uneventful pregnancy to date.  The patient's previous pregnancy 5 years ago was uncomplicated.  She has not had a previous abnormal Pap test, but the last test was performed during her prior pregnancy.  The patient has no medical issues or previous surgeries.  She takes a multivitamin and an iron supplement.  She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs.  Blood pressure is 120/74 mm Hg and pulse is 82/min.  Fetal heart tones are normal.  Physical examination reveals a gravid, nontender uterus.  The cervix is long, closed, firm, and posterior, and the fetal presenting part is high.  The Pap test showed a high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion.  Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?


A) Human papillomavirus co-testing
B) Immediate colposcopy
C) Loop electrosurgical excision procedure
D) Repeat Pap test postpartum
E) Trichloroacetic acid therapy

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