A 27-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 28 weeks gestation comes to the office for follow-up of an abnormal Pap test. She feels fetal movement, has no vaginal bleeding or contractions, and has had an uneventful pregnancy to date. The patient's previous pregnancy 5 years ago was uncomplicated. She has not had a previous abnormal Pap test, but the last test was performed during her prior pregnancy. The patient has no medical issues or previous surgeries. She takes a multivitamin and an iron supplement. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Blood pressure is 120/74 mm Hg and pulse is 82/min. Fetal heart tones are normal. Physical examination reveals a gravid, nontender uterus. The cervix is long, closed, firm, and posterior, and the fetal presenting part is high. The Pap test showed a high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Human papillomavirus co-testing
B) Immediate colposcopy
C) Loop electrosurgical excision procedure
D) Repeat Pap test postpartum
E) Trichloroacetic acid therapy
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q67: Which of the following is the most
Q68: A 15-year-old girl is brought to the
Q69: A 22-year-old woman comes to the clinic
Q70: A 15-year-old girl comes to the office
Q71: A 53-year-old woman comes to the emergency
Q73: A 38-year-old woman comes to the office
Q74: A 37-year-old woman comes to the office
Q75: A 39-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 2,
Q76: A 60-year-old woman comes to the office
Q77: A 32-year-old woman comes to the office
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents