A 29-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of palpitations, sweating, and severe headache. His symptoms resolve spontaneously by the time he is evaluated. He has had at least 2 similar episodes during the past 2 months. The patient's family history is unremarkable. He does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. His primary care provider saw him after the first episode and prescribed an anxiolytic medication. However, the patient felt drowsy at his job and stopped the medication. Physical examination shows a thin man who appears anxious and diaphoretic. The thyroid is normal to palpation without any obvious nodules. His temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 126/84 mm Hg, pulse is 86/min, and respirations are 16/min. During his prior emergency department visit for an identical episode, his blood pressure was 150/100 mm Hg and pulse was 120/min. The laboratory results at that time showed normal thyroid function tests. Endocrine studies yield results highly suspicious of a neuroendocrine tumor. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Beta-blocking agent
B) Chromogranin A measurement
C) Metaiodobenzylguanidine scan
D) MRI of the abdomen
E) Removal of tumor
Correct Answer:
Verified
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