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A 42-Year-Old Nulliparous Woman Comes to the Office for a Follow-Up

Question 301

Multiple Choice

A 42-year-old nulliparous woman comes to the office for a follow-up visit.  The patient was recently diagnosed with stage I breast cancer that was estrogen receptor positive, HER2 negative, lymph node negative, and without metastases.  She underwent a mastectomy and recently completed adjuvant chemotherapy.  She has had no weight loss, loss of appetite, weakness, or abdominal pain.  The patient also has a history of hypertension controlled with a single medication.  She had a normal Pap test 5 years ago, and human papillomavirus co-testing was negative.  All previous Pap tests were normal.  The patient uses a copper-containing intrauterine device for contraception and has regular menstrual periods that last 5 days with moderate bleeding on the first day.  She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs.  Temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) , blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 76/min.  BMI is 28 kg/m2.  Cardiac examination reveals a normal rate and rhythm with no rubs or murmurs.  The lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally.  Breast examination is consistent with postmastectomy changes.  Because of the estrogen receptor-positive tumor, she will be started on a course of tamoxifen as part of her treatment.  Which of the following is the best screening strategy for the side effects of tamoxifen in this patient?


A) Annual endometrial biopsy
B) Annual hysteroscopy
C) Annual MRI of the pelvis
D) Annual transvaginal ultrasonography
E) Evaluation only if symptoms develop

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