A 51-year-old woman comes to the office due to bilateral nipple discharge that she first noticed 3 weeks ago. The discharge is expressed only with manipulation and is not bloody or rust-colored. The patient has had no breast pain, masses, or skin changes. Since menopause at age 50, she has taken soy and vitamin E for frequent hot flashes. In addition, she has hypertension that is well controlled by a single medication. She had 2 cesarean deliveries. The patient drinks a glass of wine occasionally and does not use tobacco or illicit drugs. Her grandmother died from metastatic breast cancer at age 85. Blood pressure is 140/80 mm Hg and pulse is 80/min. BMI is 27 kg/m2. Bilateral breast examination reveals no masses, tenderness, or skin changes. A clear yellow discharge is expressed from the nipples bilaterally. There is no axillary or supraclavicular lymphadenopathy. Urine pregnancy test is negative, and other laboratory results are as follows:
Bilateral mammogram and breast ultrasound are both normal. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Collect nipple discharge for cytology
B) Discontinue soy and vitamin E supplementation
C) Obtain MRI of the breast
D) Perform percutaneous breast biopsy
E) Provide reassurance and observe
Correct Answer:
Verified
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