A 31-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 0, comes to the office for contraception management. The patient has a history of 3 first-trimester spontaneous abortions and a left lower extremity deep vein thrombosis that occurred during the last pregnancy. During evaluation after the most recent spontaneous abortion, she was diagnosed with antiphospholipid antibody syndrome based on positive lupus anticoagulant and anticardiolipin antibody tests and was placed on chronic anticoagulation. The patient's menses occur every 30 days and consist of 5 days of heavy vaginal bleeding and 2 days of moderate cramping that is relieved by nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications. She has no other chronic medical conditions or previous surgeries. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Her maternal grandmother was diagnosed with metastatic ovarian cancer at age 65; family history is otherwise noncontributory. Blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg and pulse is 70/min. BMI is 23 kg/m2. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. Pelvic examination reveals a normal-sized, nontender uterus and no adnexal masses or tenderness. Urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the best contraception option for this patient?
A) Bilateral tubal ligation
B) Combination oral contraceptives
C) Copper-containing intrauterine device
D) Estrogen/progestin vaginal ring
E) Progestin-releasing intrauterine device
Correct Answer:
Verified
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