A 60-year-old man comes to the physician complaining of shaking of his right hand. This problem began several months ago and has progressed over time. He says it is worse while watching TV, but that he frequently forgets about it while working or doing his regular daily activities. He is an accountant who works at a bank. His past medical history is significant for left hip osteoarthritis for which he occasionally takes naproxen to relieve the pain. His mother has diabetes mellitus. His father died of a heart attack at age 60. His blood pressure is 125/68 mm Hg in both arms and heart rate is 72/min. His BMI is 27 kg/m2. Physical examination shows a right hand tremor that diminishes with movement, and involuntary resistance to flexion of the right wrist and right arm. No sensory abnormalities are present. Muscle strength is preserved on both sides. Plantar reflexes are flexor bilaterally.The patient confirms his strong intention to follow all recommendations. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient's abdominal pain?
A) Duodenal-preserving resection of the pancreatic head
B) Oral pregabalin twice daily
C) Percutaneous celiac nerve block
D) Reassessment of symptoms in 1-2 months
E) Transdermal fentanyl patch
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q357: A 3-year-old boy is brought to the
Q358: A 64-year-old woman comes to the office
Q359: A 45-year-old man comes to the clinic
Q360: A 2-year-old boy is brought to the
Q361: A 53-year-old man comes to the office
Q363: A 54-year-old woman comes to the emergency
Q364: A 3-year-old boy is brought to the
Q365: A 6-week-old boy is brought to the
Q366: A 50-year-old woman comes to the office
Q367: A 56-year-old woman comes to the office
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents