A 64-year-old woman comes to the office for evaluation of dysuria and difficulty voiding. The patient began having difficulty voiding a year ago, but it has progressively worsened and now causes a sensation of incomplete emptying. She awakens several times at night to void but has no uncontrolled leakage of urine. The patient also has increasing vulvar pruritus, which she attributes to irritation from wiping with toilet paper so frequently. She has no chronic medical conditions and has had no surgeries. The patient has not been sexually active for the last 5 years; her husband has multiple medical conditions that preclude intercourse. Her last Pap test was 3 years ago and she has no history of abnormal testing. She has no known medication allergies. The patient has a 20-pack-year smoking history but quit a few years ago; she does not use alcohol or illicit drugs. Vitals signs are normal. BMI is 23 kg/m2. The abdomen is soft; there is no suprapubic or costovertebral angle tenderness. Pelvic examination reveals thin, hypopigmented lesions that extend from the clitoris to the labia majora and perineum. The labia minora appear fused over the urethra. Diffuse erosions and excoriations are present on the vulva. Speculum examination reveals an atrophic vagina with no lesions. Urinalysis is within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
A) Antifungal agents
B) Topical antibiotics
C) Topical corticosteroids
D) Topical trichloroacetic acid
E) Wide local excision
Correct Answer:
Verified
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