A 45-year-old man comes to the office due to 2 months of worsening mid-abdominal pain, abdominal cramps, and black stools. He has also had fatigue and a 5-kg (11-lb) weight loss over the same period. The patient has a history of chronic diarrhea since adolescence and was diagnosed with celiac disease 10 years ago. His baseline diarrhea improves when he avoids dietary gluten, but he has difficulty doing so due to frequent work-related travel. The patient has no other chronic medical issues and takes a daily multivitamin. He does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Vital signs are within normal limits. The patient appears thin and pale. The abdomen is mildly distended with mild generalized tenderness. There is no guarding or rebound tenderness. Bowel sounds are increased. Stool is positive for occult blood. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's current symptoms?
A) Cytomegalovirus infection of the colon
B) Excessive bacterial growth in the small intestine
C) Gastrin-secreting tumor of the pancreas
D) T-cell lymphoma arising from the jejunum
E) Transmural inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract
Correct Answer:
Verified
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