A 61-year-old man comes to the office for follow-up after a screening colonoscopy. During the procedure, a 1-cm pedunculated polyp in the sigmoid colon and 2 small pedunculated polyps in the descending colon were removed. Histopathologic evaluation of the sigmoid lesion revealed an adenomatous polyp with an area of well-differentiated adenocarcinoma invading the muscularis mucosa in the head of the polyp. The stalk and the polyp margins are free of cancerous tissue. No lymphatic or vascular involvement is seen in the tissue sample. The two descending colon polyps are hyperplastic. The patient previously had a normal screening colonoscopy at age 50 and has no family history of colon cancer. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Colonoscopic surveillance
B) Radiation therapy
C) Right-sided hemicolectomy
D) Sigmoid colon resection
E) Systemic chemotherapy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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