A previously healthy 30-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital. She complains of a rash over her ankles that started 2 weeks ago and slowly spread up to her knees. The patient has no other medical problems and takes no regular medications. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows fine petechiae and purpura around her ankles and lower legs. There is no lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly. Laboratory results are as follows:
Peripheral blood smear shows thrombocytopenia. After reviewing the laboratory results, the admitting resident orders 6 units of random donor platelet transfusion. The following day, the platelet count is 10,000/µL.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Corticosteroids
B) Low-dose heparin
C) Plasma exchange
D) Platelet transfusion
E) Splenectomy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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