A 54-year-old man with new-onset type 2 diabetes mellitus comes to the physician for his first screening ophthalmologic examination. He has no eye symptoms and describes his vision as excellent. He does not smoke. His family history is significant for obesity and diabetes but negative for cancer. Funduscopic examination shows a small, densely pigmented lesion with irregular borders in the peripheral right choroid. The lesion is about 8 mm in diameter and is minimally raised (1 mm) . Comprehensive skin examination is unremarkable. The patient is lost to follow-up. He returns 2 years later due to intermittent blurry vision. His HbA1c is 8.2%. Repeat funduscopic examination shows that the pigmented lesion now measures 18 mm in diameter and its height is estimated at 4 mm. Comprehensive skin examination is unremarkable. Further evaluation shows no lesions beyond the right eye. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
A) Enucleation surgery
B) Photocoagulation
C) Radiation therapy
D) Repeat examination after tight glycemic control
E) Systemic chemotherapy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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