A 53-year-old woman comes to the office due to 3 days of fever, headaches, severe myalgias, and weakness. She has had dry cough but no wheezing, shortness of breath, or chest pain. The patient's sister recently had similar symptoms. The patient received the influenza vaccine a week ago. She has no other medical problems and takes no medications except over-the-counter supplemental vitamins. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. She is not allergic to any medications. Temperature is 38.2 C (100.8 F) , blood pressure is 133/78 mm Hg, pulse is 101/min, and respirations are 14/min. BMI is 30 kg/m2. The patient appears flushed but in no distress. The oropharynx is hyperemic with no exudates. Mild cervical lymphadenopathy is present. Cardiopulmonary examination reveals no abnormalities. The abdomen is soft with no organomegaly. Throat swab for influenza A viral antigen is positive. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Acetaminophen and azithromycin
B) Acetaminophen and oseltamivir
C) Acetaminophen and symptomatic treatment
D) Oseltamivir and azithromycin
E) Oseltamivir and rimantadine
Correct Answer:
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