A 19-year-old woman comes to the office due to intermittent nausea, abdominal discomfort, and diarrhea. She has also had a diminished appetite and feels that her abdomen is swollen. Her parents immigrated to the United States from Guatemala when she was an infant, and she recently went there for 3 weeks to meet her cousins. The patient had a mild cough for a few days during the trip but no diarrhea or abdominal pain. She is a college freshman and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. She does not take any medications. Vital signs are within normal limits. The lungs are clear to auscultation and heart sounds are normal. The abdomen is soft, mildly distended, and nontender with increased bowel sounds. There is no rebound tenderness or hepatosplenomegaly. Fecal occult blood is positive. Laboratory results are as follows:
This patient is most likely to improve with which of the following medications?
A) Albendazole
B) Ciprofloxacin
C) Metronidazole
D) Prednisone
E) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Correct Answer:
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