A 62-year-old woman comes to the office due to fatigue and lethargy over the last 6 months. She has a history of chronic kidney disease due to long-standing type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, pulse is 84/min, and respirations are 16/min. There is conjunctival pallor. The lung fields are clear, and no murmurs are heard on cardiac examination. The abdomen is nontender. Test of the stool for occult blood is negative. Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient's anemia?
A) Evaluate iron stores
B) Obtain bone marrow biopsy
C) Obtain serum protein electrophoresis
D) Start erythropoietin therapy
E) Supplement folate and vitamin B12
Correct Answer:
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