A 77-year-old man is brought to the physician by his daughter with a 1-week history of gross hematuria. He has no frequency, urgency, hesitancy, or dribbling. His other medical problems include hypertension, chronic low back pain, and chronic renal insufficiency. The patient's medications include amlodipine, hydrochlorothiazide, and acetaminophen with codeine as needed. He has a 46-pack-year smoking history. Prostate examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory results are as follows:
Urine microscopy shows many normal-appearing red cells, but no dysmorphic red cells or casts. Urine culture shows no growth. Prostate-specific antigen is 3.2 ng/mL. Ultrasound of the kidneys shows bilateral cortical atrophy but no other lesions. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Abdominal computed tomography scan
B) Cystoscopy
C) Intravenous pyelography
D) Renal biopsy
E) Urine cytology
Correct Answer:
Verified
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