A 19-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-day history of burning pain during urination with purulent penile discharge . He has been sexually active with different female partners and did not use condoms. He has not had any fever, chills, or pelvic pain. Physical examination shows thick, purulent discharge from the urethra. Urine dipstick shows leukocyte esterase, urinalysis shows 10 WBCs/hpf, and Urine nucleic acid amplification test results are pending, and urethral Gram stain is shown in the exhibit.
Appropriate treatment of this patient's condition involves antibiotics from which of the following drug classes?

Question

A 19-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-day history of burning pain during urination with purulent penile discharge . He has been sexually active with different female partners and did not use condoms. He has not had any fever, chills, or pelvic pain. Physical examination shows thick, purulent discharge from the urethra. Urine dipstick shows leukocyte esterase, urinalysis shows 10 WBCs/hpf, and Urine nucleic acid amplification test results are pending, and urethral Gram stain is shown in the exhibit.  
Appropriate treatment of this patient's condition involves antibiotics from which of the following drug classes?

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

Eductional Objective: Infectious urethritis in men is typically caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Chlamydia trachomatis, or Mycoplasma genitalium.  Diagnosis is generally made by nucleic acid amplification testing, but microscopy with Gram stain can be used to quickly diagnose gonococcal infection.  Patients with gonorrhea and positive or uncertain Chlamydia status require ceftriaxone and doxycycline; ceftriaxone alone can be used in those who do not have Chlamydia coinfection.

A 19-Year-Old Man Comes to the Physician Because of a 2-Day