A 20-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 2-day history of dysuria, increased urinary frequency, and urgency. The patient has no fever, flank pain, nausea, or vomiting. She has no chronic medical conditions and no known drug allergie. She is sexually active with her new boyfriend, and they use condoms inconsistently. Her temperature is 37.2°C (99.0°F) . Examination shows suprapubic tenderness to palpation. Pelvic examination shows normal-appearing external genitalia. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for this patient?
A) Azithromycin
B) Doxycycline
C) Fluconazole
D) Metronidazole
E) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Correct Answer:
Verified
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