Due to a rash, a 28-year-old male visits the office. He has taken phenytoin for six years and has a history of seizure disorder. Upon examination, lymphadenopathy and a generalized, macular rash are seen. In the display, a lymph node underwent a biopsy. Treatment of this patient's condition is most likely to involve which of the following?

Question

Due to a rash, a 28-year-old male visits the office. He has taken phenytoin for six years and has a history of seizure disorder. Upon examination, lymphadenopathy and a generalized, macular rash are seen. In the display, a lymph node underwent a biopsy.  Treatment of this patient's condition is most likely to involve which of the following?

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

Eductional Objective: Treponema pallidum, a bacterium with a corkscrew form, is the culprit behind syphilis. Untreated cases of secondary syphilis manifest with a widespread, macular rash and generalized lymphadenopathy weeks or months after the initial infection. Penicillin, which prevents the last stage of bacterial cell wall formation, is the first line of defense (transpeptidation).

Due to a Rash, a 28-Year-Old Male Visits the Office