A 52-year-old woman with hypertension and a history of peptic ulcer disease comes to the physician because of a 1-day history of severe pain and swelling of her right great toe. She has had similar episodes sporadically over the past 3 years. She drinks 6 beers daily. She does not smoke or use illicit drugs. She is allergic to hydrochlorothiazide and glipizide. Her current medications are amlodipine and metformin. Examination shows erythema, warmth, and tenderness of the right first metatarsophalangeal joint and a nodule over the right elbow. The most appropriate next step in treatment is the administration of a drug that has which of the following mechanisms of action?
A) Decreased renal tubular uric acid reabsorption
B) Inhibition of cyclooxygenase activity
C) Inhibition of microtubule formation
D) Inhibition of phospholipase A2 activity
E) Inhibition of xanthine oxidase activity
Correct Answer:
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