A 40-year-old man to the physician because of severe pain and swelling in both knees for the past day. He has a history of end-stage renal disease for which he underwent a renal transplant 10 weeks ago. The patient takes an immunosuppressive regimen that includes cyclosporine and low-dose prednisone His temperature is 37.4°C (99.4°F) . serum creatinine level is within normal range with no proteinuria. Physical examination shows swelling and erythema of both knees and the base of his left big toe. . Microscopic examination of joint fluid from the knee shows numerous neutrophils as well as both intra- and extracellular crystals as shown in the exhibit. 
Which of the following mechanisms is most likely responsible for this patient's acute symptoms?
A) Decreased urinary excretion of uric acid
B) Increased production of uric acid
C) Rapid drop in blood uric acid levels
D) Release of nucleic acids from apoptotic cells
E) Volume depletion and decreased renal perfusion
Correct Answer:
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