A 34-year-old woman suffers from recurring throbbing headaches that cause significant distress. They come with nausea and photophobia. She has been to the emergency room 5 times in the last 6 months for these headaches. Her blood pressure ranges from 140/90 mm Hg to 150/95 mm Hg during office visits. The neurologic exam is unremarkable. The patient is given metoprolol and told that the medication will reduce the frequency of headaches as well as lower blood pressure in the long run. Which of the following best explains this medication's effect on blood pressure?
A) Decreased level of circulating catecholamines
B) Decreased level of circulating renin
C) Increased atrioventricular nodal conduction rate
D) Increased renal sodium and water retention
E) Long-term increase in peripheral vascular resistance
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q463: A 30-year-old women is brought to the
Q464: A 4-year-old boy with acute lymphoblastic leukemia
Q465: Resistant hypertension has been diagnosed in a
Q466: An 18-year-old male is brought to the
Q467: A 4-year-old boy with acute lymphoblastic leukemia
Q469: A 30-year-old man is brought to the
Q470: A 57-year-old woman with non-small cell lung
Q471: A 78-year-old man with severe dementia is
Q472: A 10-year-old girl is brought to the
Q473: A 15-year-old girl comes to the physician
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents