A 38-year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to a 3-day history of left arm and leg numbness. She also reports urinary urgency and incontinence but has no fever or dysuria. The patient was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis 10 years ago after an episode of right eye vision loss. She was taking disease-modifying therapy but stopped after being symptom-free for several years. Temperature is 37 C (98.6 F) , blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 88/min. Sensation to light touch and pin prick is diminished on the left side. Neuroimaging reveals new areas of demyelination compared to previous MRIs. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Baclofen
B) Cyclophosphamide
C) Gabapentin
D) Glucocorticoids
E) Interferon beta
F) Intravenous immunoglobulins
G) Plasmapheresis
Correct Answer:
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