A 20-year-old woman comes to the emergency department in January due to severe myalgias, fever, headache, and nausea that developed 4 hours ago. She has also had several episodes of nonbloody emesis over the past hour. The patient was feeling well this morning before her symptoms started. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. The patient has no known medication allergies. Temperature is 40.3 C (104.5 F) , blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 115/min. She is confused and has difficulty concentrating. Lung examination is normal. There is marked tenderness to palpation of the muscles along her extremities, which are mottled and cool to the touch. Complete blood count reveals a white blood cell count of 28,000/mm3 with 12% bands. A noncontrast head CT is unremarkable. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Discharge home with symptomatic management only
B) Give intravenous fluids and antiemetics, hold for observation
C) Order CT chest with contrast
D) Perform lumbar puncture
E) Send rapid influenza test and discharge with oseltamivir if positive
Correct Answer:
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