A 42-year-old man is brought to the emergency department immediately after having a seizure. His family describes a medical history of generalized tonic-clonic seizures. The patient has been on valproic acid for the past 10 years but stopped taking the drug 6 months ago as he had no seizures in the last 9 years. He is otherwise healthy and had been doing well until this seizure episode. He does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. The patient is afebrile. Blood pressure is 105/68 mm Hg, pulse is 96/min, and respirations are 18/min. Pulse oximetry shows 99% on room air. The patient appears confused and lethargic. Chest auscultation is unremarkable, and the abdomen is soft and nontender. A limited neurologic examination is nonfocal. Laboratory results are as follows:
Arterial blood gas shows pH 7.24. Chest x-ray and urinalysis are within normal limits, and a CT scan of the head is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient's metabolic acidosis?
A) Administer intravenous bicarbonate
B) Check serum amylase
C) Check serum ketones
D) Observe and repeat the laboratory tests after 2 hours
E) Obtain a serum ammonia level
F) Start a norepinephrine infusion
Correct Answer:
Verified
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