A 60-year-old man comes to the emergency department with a 10-day history of malaise and lower back pain. He has tried high-dose acetaminophen with no relief. His past medical history is significant for benign prostate hyperplasia and recent urinary tract infection treated with ciprofloxacin. He reports resolution of urinary symptoms. His temperature is 38.3 C (101 F) , blood pressure is 120/76 mm Hg, pulse is 90/min, and respirations are 16/min. Physical examination shows exquisite tenderness over the L4-L5 vertebrae and local paravertebral muscle spasm. Neurologic examination shows 2+ deep-tendon reflexes and 5/5 muscle strength in all extremities. The straight leg raise test is negative at 60 degrees. The prostate is mildly enlarged and nontender. Laboratory results are as follows:
Plain x-rays of the lumbar spine show mild degenerative changes. What is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Computed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis
B) Magnetic resonance imaging of the spine
C) Naproxen and physical therapy
D) Prostate biopsy
E) Renal ultrasonogram
F) Technetium bone scan
Correct Answer:
Verified
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