A 25-year-old man comes to the office due to a painless ulcer on his penis. He has no fever or urethral discharge. A few weeks ago, he had unprotected vaginal sex with a sex worker. The patient previously required hospitalization in the intensive care unit for toxic epidermal necrolysis after taking penicillin. He has no other medical conditions and takes no medications. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows a shallow, nontender, and nonexudative penile ulcer with a smooth base. Mild, bilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy is present. Serum rapid plasma reagin is positive, and HIV testing is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
A) Amoxicillin
B) Ciprofloxacin
C) Clindamycin
D) Doxycycline
E) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Correct Answer:
Verified
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