A 46-year-old hospitalized man is evaluated for 1 day of fever, dull facial pain, and nasal discharge. The patient was admitted to the intensive care unit 3 days ago for diabetic ketoacidosis. He has a history of poorly controlled type 1 diabetes mellitus due to medication noncompliance and has had multiple hospitalizations for ketoacidosis. He does not use tobacco or alcohol. He has no known drug allergies. Temperature is 38.5 C (101.3 F) , blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg, pulse is 98/min, and respirations are 16/min. Foul-smelling discharge is present in the right naris, and nasal examination shows a necrotic right nasal turbinate. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. Morning laboratory studies show resolution of the ketoacidosis and a hemoglobin A1c of 8.5%. Potassium hydroxide stains of scrapings from the nasal turbinates reveal hyphae. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
A) Amphotericin and hyperbaric oxygen therapy
B) Fluconazole and oral prednisone
C) Surgical debridement plus amphotericin B
D) Surgical debridement plus fluconazole
E) Surgical debridement plus voriconazole
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q1293: A 44-year-old man comes to the clinic
Q1294: A 46-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q1295: A 19-year-old man comes to the office
Q1296: A 62-year-old man is brought to the
Q1297: A 60-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q1299: A 58-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q1300: A 34-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q1301: A 37-year-old man with HIV comes to
Q1302: A 25-year-old man comes to the office
Q1303: A 25-year-old man comes to the emergency
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents