A 28-year-old primigravid woman at 40 weeks gestation is hospitalized for induction of labor. She has no chronic medical conditions, and her pregnancy has been uncomplicated. Intravaginal misoprostol is administered for cervical ripening followed by intravenous infusion of oxytocin. Progressive uterine contractions are achieved, and the fetal heart rate tracing is reassuring. Patient-controlled bupivacaine via an epidural catheter is started for pain control. Twenty minutes later, the patient experiences perioral numbness, a metallic taste in her mouth, and tinnitus. She also reports feelings of anxiety and palpitations but has no headache or visual disturbances. Blood pressure is 150/86 mm Hg and pulse is 110/min. Physical examination reveals normal deep tendon reflexes and no clonus. While being examined, the patient has a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's seizure?
A) Bupivacaine systemic toxicity
B) Eclampsia
C) Inadvertent spinal block
D) Misoprostol adverse effect
E) Oxytocin toxicity
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q205: A 65-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q206: A 50-year-old woman is evaluated in the
Q207: A 28-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1,
Q208: A 62-year-old man comes to the office
Q209: A 34-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q211: A 78-year-old man is brought to the
Q212: A 43-year-old woman comes to the emergency
Q213: A 38-year-old man comes to the office
Q214: An 84-year-old man is brought to the
Q215: A 42-year-old woman is evaluated in the
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents