A 76-year-old man comes for outpatient follow-up after recent coronary artery bypass grafting surgery. He has abundant, yellowish wound discharge from the lower part of the surgical midsternal wound. The patient has no chest pain, dyspnea, fevers, or abdominal swelling. He underwent uncomplicated coronary artery bypass grafting surgery for severe coronary artery disease 9 days ago, which included internal thoracic artery harvesting. Medical history also includes hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. The patient is afebrile, and vital signs are within normal limits. On examination, the sternum appears stable to palpation. There is swelling and soft tissue separation at the lower part of the wound with copious discharge. Which of the following is the next best step in managing this patient?
A) Chest and sternal imaging
B) Intensive glucose control and observation
C) Oral, broad-spectrum antibiotics
D) Topical antibiotics
E) Wound culture and observation
Correct Answer:
Verified
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