A 64-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to 2 days of fevers, chills, and positional chest pain. Medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and end-stage kidney disease. The patient undergoes hemodialysis 3 times a week but missed his last session because he did not feel well. Temperature is 39.2 C (102.6 F) , blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg, pulse is 130/min and irregular, and respirations are 20/min. The patient appears unwell and uncomfortable. Examination shows clear lungs, distant heart sounds, no heart murmurs, and minimal lower extremity edema. The dialysis catheter site appears clean without erythema or purulence. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Blood leukocytes are 25,000/mm3 with 80% neutrophils. ECG shows atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response and low-amplitude QRS complexes. Chest x-ray reveals normal lung fields. Bedside echocardiography reveals normal left and right ventricular function, no significant valvular disease, and a moderate pericardial effusion with no evidence of tamponade. Blood cultures are obtained, and broad-spectrum antibiotics are administered. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Ibuprofen and colchicine
B) No additional intervention until culture results are available
C) Pericardiocentesis
D) Transesophageal echocardiography
Correct Answer:
Verified
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