A 56-year-old woman comes to the office for a routine health maintenance examination. She has been postmenopausal for 4 years and is not using hormone therapy. The patient had a normal screening mammogram last year. Pap testing 3 years ago was normal, but human papillomavirus testing was not performed. The patient has well-controlled hypertension and hyperlipidemia. She had 2 cesarean deliveries and a tubal ligation with her last delivery at age 30. Blood pressure is 130/90 mm Hg and pulse is 72/min. BMI is 38 kg/m2. Physical examination is normal. Speculum examination shows no cervical abnormalities. Her Pap test shows endometrial cells and no cervical intraepithelial lesions. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Colposcopy
B) Endometrial biopsy
C) Hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
D) Loop electrosurgical excision procedure
E) Repeat cervical cancer screening in 1 year
Correct Answer:
Verified
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