A 33-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 2, comes to the office for evaluation of nipple discharge. The nipple has intermittently leaked pale gray discharge for the past week. The patient had a progestin-releasing intrauterine device placed for contraception 3 years ago and has been amenorrheic for the past 2 years. Family history is significant for 2 maternal aunts with breast cancer in their 60s. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Temperature is 36.7 C (98.1 F) , blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 70/min. Examination shows large, pendulous breasts without palpable masses or nipple abnormalities. Brownish-gray discharge is expressed from both nipples and is guaiac negative. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Cytology of the nipple discharge
B) Mammography
C) Measurement of prolactin and TSH levels
D) Reassurance and routine follow-up
E) Removal of progestin-releasing intrauterine device
F) Ultrasound of the breasts
Correct Answer:
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