A 30-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, comes to the office for evaluation of blood-tinged breast milk. The patient had an uncomplicated vaginal delivery 2 months ago and has been exclusively pumping her breast milk. She initially had bilateral breast pain with letdown and bloody-appearing milk due to nipple trauma that resolved with a lactation consultation and supportive measures. However, for the past 2 weeks, the patient has had intermittent blood-tinged milk from the right breast but no fever, chills, or breast pain. She has no chronic medical conditions, and her only medication is a progestin-only oral contraceptive. Temperature is 36.7 C (98.1 F) and pulse is 88/min. On examination, there is mild, diffuse breast tenderness and engorgement bilaterally. A firm density is palpable within the right breast at the 9 o'clock position, but no fluctuance or surrounding erythema is present. There is no axillary or clavicular lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Breast imaging
B) Change in contraceptive method
C) Cytology of the nipple discharge
D) Dicloxacillin therapy
E) Observation and reassurance only
Correct Answer:
Verified
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