A 48-year-old woman is undergoing evaluation of right nipple discharge that was first noticed last week during a clinical breast examination. The patient has schizophrenia, which was diagnosed in her 20s and is well controlled with antipsychotic therapy. She also takes acetaminophen intermittently for headaches. The patient plays tennis and goes to kickboxing classes regularly. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Family history is significant for a paternal aunt who died from metastatic breast cancer at age 50. BMI is 28 kg/m². Vital signs are normal. On physical examination, scant reddish-brown fluid is expressed from the right breast. There are no breast masses and no supraclavicular or axillary lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's findings?
A) Infiltrating carcinoma within the breast duct
B) Intraluminal papillary cell projections within the breast duct
C) Localized breast tissue necrosis
D) Localized lactotroph proliferation in the pituitary
E) Medication-induced dopamine blockade in the pituitary
Correct Answer:
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