A 32-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the office for evaluation of possible infertility. The patient underwent removal of a progestin-releasing intrauterine device (IUD) 13 months ago, and since then she has been having unprotected intercourse 3 or 4 times per week with her husband. The patient's menstrual cycles occur every 28-31 days with 3-5 days of light to moderate bleeding and no associated fatigue, cramping, or bloating. Her last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago. BMI is 28 kg/m². Vital signs are normal. Pelvic examination and transvaginal ultrasonography reveal an anteverted uterus and normal, bilateral adnexa. The remainder of the examination is normal. Her husband's semen analysis is normal. Hysterosalpingogram shows a normal uterine cavity and bilateral tubal patency. Which of the following is the best next step for this patient?
A) Diagnostic laparoscopy
B) Karyotype analysis
C) Midluteal phase progesterone level
D) Reassurance that this is normal after IUD removal
E) Testosterone and dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate (DHEAS) levels
Correct Answer:
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