A 57-year-old woman comes to the office for evaluation of vaginal pruritus, pain with urination, and increased urinary frequency. The patient's symptoms have been present for several months but have intensified recently. Her husband passed away 4 years ago, and the patient had not been sexually active until 6 months ago with a new partner. She has had some pain with intercourse and has tried over-the-counter, water-based lubricants with little relief. Her last menstrual period was 7 years ago. She has poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus with a recent hemoglobin A1c of 8.4%. BMI is 28 kg/m2. Vital signs are normal. Pelvic examination shows thin vulvar skin with reduced elasticity. The vagina appears pale, dry, and has multiple areas of petechiae. There is minimal clear discharge in the vault. Vaginal pH is 6.5. Urinalysis is normal. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Oral metronidazole
B) Oral nitrofurantoin
C) Topical corticosteroid cream
D) Topical nystatin cream
E) Vaginal estrogen cream
Correct Answer:
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