A 32-year-old primigravida at 28 weeks gestation comes to the emergency department due to painful contractions that began 2 hours ago and are now occurring every 5 minutes. She has had no leakage of fluid or vaginal bleeding; fetal movement is normal. The patient was last seen in the office a few days ago for a routine prenatal visit; she had some increasing pelvic pressure, but her pregnancy has otherwise been uncomplicated. She has no chronic medical conditions, and her only medications are a daily prenatal vitamin and folate supplement. Temperature is 37 C (99 F) , blood pressure is 114/60 mm Hg, and pulse is 80/min. The fetal heart rate tracing has moderate variability, multiple accelerations, and no decelerations. Tocodynamometry shows contractions every 5 minutes. On digital pelvic examination, the cervix is 3 cm dilated and 90% effaced with the fetus in vertex presentation. Betamethasone and indomethacin are administered. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Magnesium sulfate
B) Nifedipine
C) Observation and repeat cervical examination in 2 hours
D) Progesterone
E) Ultrasound to measure cervical length
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q415: A 24-year-old primigravid woman at 10 weeks
Q416: A 36-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 2,
Q417: A 24-year-old primigravida comes to the emergency
Q418: A 25-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1,
Q419: A healthy 22-year-old woman, gravida 2 para
Q421: A 29-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1,
Q422: A 24-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0,
Q423: A 32-year-old primigravid woman comes to the
Q424: A 33-year-old woman, gravida 7 para 6,
Q425: A 32-year-old primigravida at 18 weeks gestation
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents