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A 24-Year-Old Primigravida Comes to the Emergency Department for Evaluation

Question 417

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A 24-year-old primigravida comes to the emergency department for evaluation of pelvic pain.  The pain began a week ago as mild cramping but is now constant and severe.  The patient had a positive home pregnancy test 3 weeks ago and has also recently had some brown vaginal spotting.  She has no chronic medical conditions or previous surgeries.  Blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg and pulse is 108/min.  The abdomen is tender to palpation over the left lower quadrant and rebound is present.  Initial laboratory results are as follows: A 24-year-old primigravida comes to the emergency department for evaluation of pelvic pain.  The pain began a week ago as mild cramping but is now constant and severe.  The patient had a positive home pregnancy test 3 weeks ago and has also recently had some brown vaginal spotting.  She has no chronic medical conditions or previous surgeries.  Blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg and pulse is 108/min.  The abdomen is tender to palpation over the left lower quadrant and rebound is present.  Initial laboratory results are as follows:   Pelvic ultrasound shows a small uterus with a thin endometrium, an 8-week fetal pole in the left adnexa with cardiac motion, and a large amount of free fluid in the pelvis.  Laparoscopy confirms hemoperitoneum and a ruptured left fallopian tube; a left salpingectomy is subsequently performed.  On postoperative day 1, the patient's blood pressure is 116/78 mm Hg and pulse is 88/min.  Repeat laboratory results are as follows:   Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient? A) Anti-D immunoglobulin B) Intramuscular methotrexate C) No additional management indicated D) Suction curettage E) Vaginal misoprostol Pelvic ultrasound shows a small uterus with a thin endometrium, an 8-week fetal pole in the left adnexa with cardiac motion, and a large amount of free fluid in the pelvis.  Laparoscopy confirms hemoperitoneum and a ruptured left fallopian tube; a left salpingectomy is subsequently performed.  On postoperative day 1, the patient's blood pressure is 116/78 mm Hg and pulse is 88/min.  Repeat laboratory results are as follows: A 24-year-old primigravida comes to the emergency department for evaluation of pelvic pain.  The pain began a week ago as mild cramping but is now constant and severe.  The patient had a positive home pregnancy test 3 weeks ago and has also recently had some brown vaginal spotting.  She has no chronic medical conditions or previous surgeries.  Blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg and pulse is 108/min.  The abdomen is tender to palpation over the left lower quadrant and rebound is present.  Initial laboratory results are as follows:   Pelvic ultrasound shows a small uterus with a thin endometrium, an 8-week fetal pole in the left adnexa with cardiac motion, and a large amount of free fluid in the pelvis.  Laparoscopy confirms hemoperitoneum and a ruptured left fallopian tube; a left salpingectomy is subsequently performed.  On postoperative day 1, the patient's blood pressure is 116/78 mm Hg and pulse is 88/min.  Repeat laboratory results are as follows:   Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient? A) Anti-D immunoglobulin B) Intramuscular methotrexate C) No additional management indicated D) Suction curettage E) Vaginal misoprostol Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?


A) Anti-D immunoglobulin
B) Intramuscular methotrexate
C) No additional management indicated
D) Suction curettage
E) Vaginal misoprostol

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