A 24-year-old primigravida comes to the emergency department for evaluation of pelvic pain. The pain began a week ago as mild cramping but is now constant and severe. The patient had a positive home pregnancy test 3 weeks ago and has also recently had some brown vaginal spotting. She has no chronic medical conditions or previous surgeries. Blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg and pulse is 108/min. The abdomen is tender to palpation over the left lower quadrant and rebound is present. Initial laboratory results are as follows:
Pelvic ultrasound shows a small uterus with a thin endometrium, an 8-week fetal pole in the left adnexa with cardiac motion, and a large amount of free fluid in the pelvis. Laparoscopy confirms hemoperitoneum and a ruptured left fallopian tube; a left salpingectomy is subsequently performed. On postoperative day 1, the patient's blood pressure is 116/78 mm Hg and pulse is 88/min. Repeat laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Anti-D immunoglobulin
B) Intramuscular methotrexate
C) No additional management indicated
D) Suction curettage
E) Vaginal misoprostol
Correct Answer:
Verified
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